SAFe 6.0 Practitioner

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1. Who is responsible for managing the Portfolio Kanban?

Release Train Engineer
Solution Management
Product Management
Lean Portfolio Management


2. What is used to brainstorm potential Portfolio future states?

Enterprise business drivers
Epics and Enablers
KPIs and Lean budget Guardrails
SWOT and TOWS


3. What is "precisely specify value by product" central to?

Lean Thinking
SAFe Principles
Agile Manifesto
SAFe Core Values


4. What is found on an ART planning board?

Tasks
User Stories
Features
Epics


5. What are Lean Portfolio Management, Agile Product Delivery, and Lean-Agile Leadership?

A) SAFe Core Competencies
B) SAFe Lean-Agile Principles
C) Agile values
D) Steps in the Business Agility Value Stream


6. Which SAFe Core Value includes use "common language" and "understand your customer"?

A) Alignment
B) Transparency
C) Respect for People
D) Relentless Improvement


7. What is one of the SAFe Core Values?

A) Lean-Agile Leadership
B) Transparency
C) Flow
D) Culture


8. Which statement is a value from the Agile Manifesto?

Customer collaboration over a constant indefinite pace
Customer collaboration over Feature negotiation
Customer collaboration over contract negotiation
Customer collaboration over ongoing internal conversation


9. The primary goal of SAFe is to achieve what?

Customer centricity
Lean Portfolio Management
Business Agility
Organizing around value


*10. Why do Business Owners assign business value to team PI Objectives?

To determine what the teams should work on first
To override the decisions made in WSJF prioritization
To empower teams to make decisions around work
To ensure the teams do not work on architectural Enablers


11. Which SAFe Lean-Agile Principle includes the critical part of "delaying decisions to the last responsible moment"?

A) Make value flow without interruptions
B) Assume variability; preserve options
C) Base milestones on objective evaluation of working systems
D) Build incrementally with fast, integrated learning cycles


12. A SAFe Portfolio is a collection of what?

Business units
Development Value Streams
Functional teams
Solutions


13. Which type of decision should remain centralized even in a decentralized decision-making environment?

Decisions that require local information
Decisions that are made frequently
Decisions that deliver large and broad economic benefits
Decisions that come with a high cost of delay


14. How does SAFe describe Customer Centricity?

As a strategy to meet the needs of an ever-changing Customer market
As a mindset focused on Customer behaviors that produce the best innovations
As a set of practices employed to make products focused on the Customer
As a way of working to include the Customer in daily work processes and planning


*15. What is one of the Agile Release Train events?

A) Solution Demo
B) Backlog refinement
C) Product Owner sync
D) Iteration Retrospective


16. What else does the SAFe principle, unlock the intrinsic motivation of knowledge workers, require besides purpose and minimum possible constraints?

Autonomy
Innovation
Incentive-based compensation
Transparency


17. During the final plan review, ART PI risks are ROAM'ed. What do the letters in ROAM represent?

Resolved, Owned, Approved, Mitigated
Resolved, Owned, Accepted, Mitigated
Resolved, Owned, Assigned, Mitigated
Resolved, Owned, Active, Mitigated


18. Restoring the speed and innovation of the entrepreneurial network while leveraging the stability of the hierarchical system is a benefit of what?

○ Dual operating system
○ Customer centricity
○ Functional silos
○ Continuous learning culture


19. Which team type is organized to assist other teams with specialized capabilities and help them become more proficient in new technologies?

Platform team
Stream-aligned team
Complicated subsystem team
Enabling team


20. Which statement applies to uncommitted objectives?

A) They are counted when calculating load
B) They are extra things teams can do if they have time
C) They are items the team has high confidence in
D) They are included in the commitment


21. What is the focus of Lean Thinking?

A) Moving to an iterative development process
B) Ensuring respect for people and culture
C) Implementing objective measures of progress
D) Reducing delays


22. When basing decisions on economics, how are lead time, product cost, value, and development expense used?

A) To understand solution tradeoffs
B) To take into account sunk costs
C) To limit work in process (WIP)
D) To recover money already spent


23. Which Lean budget Guardrail helps ensure the appropriate allocation of budgets to balance near-term opportunities with long-term strategy and growth?

A) Approving significant initiatives
B) Applying capacity allocation
C) Guiding investments by horizon
D) Continuous Business Owner engagement


24. What is one way Lean-Agile leaders lead by example?

A) By modeling SAFe's Lean-Agile Mindset, values, principles, and practices
B) By mastering the Seven Core Competencies of the Lean Enterprise
C) By applying empathic design and focusing on Customer Centricity
D) By using the SAFe Implementation Roadmap to script the path for change


25. Which statement is true about batch size?

A) When Stories are broken into tasks, it means there are small batch sizes
B) Large batch sizes increase variability
C) Large batch sizes ensure time for built-in quality
D) The handoff batch should be made as large as possible


26. The analyzing step of the Portfolio Kanban system has a new Epic with a completed Lean business case. What best describes the next step for the Epic?

A) It will be moved to the ready state in the Portfolio Kanban if it receives a 'go' decision from Lean Portfolio Management
B) It will be implemented once the Epic Owner approves the Lean business case
C) It will remain in the analyzing step until one or more Agile Release Trains have the capacity to implement it
D) It will be implemented if it has the highest weighted shortest job first (WSJF) ranking


27. What is one key to leading a successful change?

A) Forming a strategic vision
B) Instituting traditions
C) Generating long-term wins
D) Sustaining deceleration


28. User business value and time criticality are components of what?

A) Product Vision
B) Feature Acceptance Criteria
C) Story point estimation
D) Cost of Delay


29. During the PI Planning event, when are planning adjustments agreed upon?

A) During the draft plan review
B) During the management review and problem-solving meeting
C) During the Coach Sync
D) During breakout sessions


30. What type of thinking allows the Customer to pull value from the producer?

A) Design
B) Customer-centric
C) Lean
D) Systems


31. A confidence vote is taken at the end of PI Planning after dependencies are resolved and risks are addressed. What best describes the process of the confidence vote?

A) The Business Owners vote
B) The team's and the ART's vote
C) Each person votes
D) The managers vote


32. A person is expressing their concern about how the continuous involvement of Business Owners in team events might lead to micromanagement. What should be the response?

Business Owners should trust the teams to make decisions using a bottom-up intelligence model
Business Owners should only attend team events if the teams invite them
Business Owners should attend only the Iteration Review and System Demo to avoid micromanaging teams
Business Owners participate in key events but should be careful to act as an objective observer and not a micromanager


33. What is one Guardrail on Lean Budget spend?

A) Participatory budgeting
B) Continuous Business Owner engagement
C) The Program Increment (PI) cadence
D) Lean Portfolio Management


34. What method provides a continuous understanding of the target market?

Lean Portfolio Management
Design thinking
Participatory budgeting
Lean Systems Engineering


35. What is one way to describe a cross-functional Agile Team?

A) They are made up of individuals, each of whom can define, develop, test, and deploy the system
B) They are optimized for communication and delivery of value
C) They deliver value every 6 weeks
D) They release customer products to production continuously


36. Which implementation step follows Coach ART Execution on the SAFe Implementation Roadmap?

A) Organize Around Value
B) Train Executives, Leaders, and Managers
C) Launch more ARTs and Value Streams
D) Accelerate


37. What represents the workflow, activities, and automation needed to deliver new functionality more frequently?

A) The Portfolio Kanban
B) The PI Planning process
C) The Continuous Delivery Pipeline
D) The Lean budget Guardrails


*38. What triggers the need for a Value Stream?

A) Feature request
B) Spike request
C) User Story request
D) Epic request


39. What is one example of differentiating business objectives?

A) Portfolio Vision
B) Enterprise Goals
C) Strategic Themes
D) Solution Intent


40. Who decides the Team PI Objective Business Value scoring after negotiation?

A) Business Owner
B) Product Management
C) The Agile Team
D) The RTE


41. Deploy, verify, monitor, and respond are all activities of what?

A) Continuous Deployment
B) Release on Demand
C) Continuous Exploration
D) Continuous Integration


42. How does SAFe recommend using a second operating system to deliver value?

A) Reorganize the hierarchies around the flow of value
B) Decide whether to apply a hierarchical or Value Stream organizational model across the Enterprise
C) Build a small entrepreneurial network focused on the Customer in place of the existing hierarchies
D) Organize development around the flow of value while maintaining the hierarchies


43. What is an example of applying cadence and synchronization in SAFe?

A) Creating cross-functional ARTs and Agile teams
B) Conducting a PI Planning event
C) Using a Portfolio Kanban system
D) Allocating budgets to Value Streams


44. What is one of the dimensions of Lean-Agile Leadership?

A) Support organizational change
B) Relentless improvement
C) Mindset and principles
D) Emotional intelligence


45. What is the last step in Kotter’s approach to change management?

A) Consolidate gains and produce more wins
B) Sustain and improve
C) Generate short-term wins
D) Anchor new approaches in the culture


46. What is one of the tools associated with Design Thinking?

A) Behavior-driven development
B) Portfolio canvas
C) Empathy maps
D) Set-based design


47. Which basic Agile quality practice reduces bottlenecks and ensures consistency?

A) Peer-review and pairing
B) Definition of done
C) Establish flow
D) Collective ownership and standards


48. Which SAFe Lean-Agile Principle includes an emphasis on "deliver early and often"?

A) Organize around value
B) Build incrementally with fast, integrated learning cycles
C) Take an economic view
D) Make value flow without interruptions


49. According to SAFe Principle #10, what should the Enterprise do when markets and customers demand change?

A. Create an Agile Release Train to focus on value
B. Reorganize the network around the new value flow
C. Apply development cadence and synchronization to operate effectively and manage uncertainty
D. Create a reliable decision-making framework to empower employees and ensure a fast flow of value


50. Which statement is true about ART events?

A. ART events run inside the team events, and the team events create a closed-loop system
B. Team events run inside the ART events, and the ART events create a closed-loop system
C. The Inspect and Adapt is the only ART event required to create a closed-loop system
D. The daily stand-up is an ART event that requires the scrum of scrums and Program Owner sync involvement in the closed-loop system


51. Which role serves as the servant leader for the Agile Release Train?

A. Business Owner
B. Release Train Engineer
C. Agile Coach
D. Scrum Master


52. What is part of the role of the Scrum Master?

A. To escalate ART impediments
B. To prioritize and identify what is ready for Iteration Planning
C. To facilitate all team events
D. To coach the interactions with the Scrum Framework


53. By organizing the second operating system around_________ instead of ________, SAFe offers a way for enterprises to focus on customers, products, innovation, and growth

A. departments, value streams
B. products, features
C. features,components
D. value streams, departments


54. How long is the Iteration Review?

A. 6 hours
B. 1 day
C. 1 to 2 hours
D. 4 hours


55. During Iteration Planning, the Scrum Master presents the stories in order of priority and answers clarifying questions

A. TRUE
B. FALSE


56. When is the Acceptance Criteria for Features typically defined?

A. during Program Backlog refinement
B. during Iteration Planning
C. during PI Planning
D. during Inspect & Adapt


*57. What is the primary goal of assigning business value to PI Objectives?

A. to help the teams on the train prioritize work
B. to show economic impact to the customer
C. none of the above
D. to have Business Owner buy-in


58. Which of the following is not a primary responsibility of Product Management?

A. Developing the Vision and Roadmap for the ART
B. Facilitating PI Planning
C. Owning and managing the Program Backlog
D. Understanding the customer needs


59. The Agile Manifesto consists of 4 values and how many principles?

A. seven
B. twelve
C. five
D. ten


60. What does the R in the SMART model for PI Objectives stand for?

A. Reliable
B. Rare
C. Relatable
D. Realistic


61. What does the Continuous Delivery Pipeline enable?

A. Release on Demand
B. Quarterly Release
C. Annual Release
D. Scheduled Releases


62. In the Program Kanban some steps have work in process (WIP) limits. Why is this necessary?

A. To help Continuous Deployment
B. To enable multitasking
C. To ensure large queues are not being built
D. To keep timebox goals


63. What is one of the six steps in the Problem Solving Workshop?

A. Choose a problem to solve - agreement not required
B. Identify the biggest root cause using the Pareto Analysis
C. Apply root solution analysis
D. Brainstorm possible failures


64. Which behavior indicates a team is cross-functional in an Agile framework?

A. Each team member can do all the activities to define, build, and test a Solution
B. Each team can deliver Features across multiple domains
C. Each team member can define and build, with a System Team testing the Solution
D. Each team can collectively define, build, and test an increment of value


65. Which situation should use the Large Solution SAFe configuration?

A. Web-scale enterprises with millions of customers
B. Enterprises building solutions that require external suppliers
C. Organizations that operate in an environment that requires compliance for complex, high-assurance systems
D. Organizations building a solution requiring multiple ARTs


66. Which activity is key to successfully implementing the Scaled Agile Framework?

A. Remove blocks such as portfolio estimation
B. Replace the PI Planning process with the Inspect and Adapt workshop when possible
C. Use the Innovation and Planning Iteration instead of the Pl Planning process
D. Use a cadence-based Pl Planning process


67. Which of the below are not part of the CALMR approach to DevOps?

A. Measurement
B. Lean Flow
C. Authentication
D. Culture


68. During the Inspect and Adapt event, how are reflection, data collection, problem solving, and identification of improvement actions used?

A. To increase the quality and reliability of the next PI
B. To enhance and improve the Innovation and Planning practices
C. To help the team bond and work more efficiently together
D. To evaluate better implementation steps


69. How does a team demonstrate progress?

A. By presenting status slides
B. By having the Product Owner verbally communicate to the stakeholders
C. By showing the actual working product
D. By showing screen shots of the product


70. What is one responsibility of the Scrum Master?

A. To prioritize the Team's Backlog
B. To define the tasks and assign owners
C. To remove impediments in order to help protect the team
D. To facilitate the PI Planning session


71. What type of information can be easily seen in a cumulative flow diagram?

A. Time to complete a Feature
B. Team capacity
C. Work in process across the team
D. The number of defects that escape to production


72. What is considered an anti-pattern when assigning business values to team PI Objectives?

A. Business values are assigned to uncommitted objectives.
B. High business value is assigned to important Enabler work.
C. Business Owners assign the business value for all teams on the ART.
D. All PI Objectives are given a business value of 10.


73. What is a minimum viable product? (MVP)

A. A minimal version of a new product used to test a hypothesis
B. A prototype that can be used to explore user needs
C. A Feature that can be delivered in an Iteration
D. A minimal product that can be built to achieve market dominance


74. Which statement correctly describes one aspect of the team's commitment at the end of PI Planning?

A. A team commits to all the Features they put on the ART planning board
B. A team commits only to the PI Objectives with the highest business value
C. A team commits to all the Stories they put on their PI plan
D. A team does not commit to uncommitted objectives


75. What is one quality practice for software development?

A. Rapid prototyping
B. Refactoring
C. Continuous exploration
D. Modeling and simulation


76. What is one way to understand WIP in a system?

A. Split stories
B. Make current work visible
C. Size stories smaller
D. Pair to complete the work faster


77. Which of the following types of work is found within the Agile Team Backlog?

A. Features
B. Capabilities
C. User Stories
D. Epics


78. Which of the following is an output of the PI Planning process?

A. PI Vision
B. PI Goals
C. Actual PI Business Value
D. PI Objectives


79. Who has content authority to make decisions at the User Story level during PI Planning?

A. Release Train Engineer
B. Scrum Master/Team Coach
C. Product Owner
D. Agile Team


80. How does SAFe provide a second operating system that enables Business Agility?

A. By achieving economies of scale
B. By organizing around functional areas to focus on skills development
C. By creating a hierarchy to provide stability
D. By focusing on customers, products, innovation, and growth


81. What is the purpose of Customer Centricity?

A. To design custom-built Customer Solutions
B. To interpret market rhythms
C. To build small, partial systems just in time
D. To understand the Customer's needs


82. What is an example of a program event?

A. Scrum of scrums
B. Iteration review
C. Daily stand-up
D. Innovation and Planning


83. The CALMR approach to DevOps includes Automation, Lean flow, Measurement, and Recovery. What does the "C" represent?

A. Cycle-time
B. Cadence
C. Continuous Integration
D. Culture


84. Which of the following Agile Team responsibilities is associated with the Iteration Retrospective?

A. Improve relentlessly
B. Apply systems thinking
C. Take an economic view
D. Connect to the customer


85. What is scrum?

A. A methodology used to deliver usable and reliable solutions to the end user
B. A process for continuously maintaining deployment readiness
C. A lightweight process for cross-functional, self-organized teams
D. A routine method of deploying deliverables to operations


86. What is the role of the Product Owner?

A. To ensure quality by testing the Solution
B. To prioritize the Program Backlog
C. Estimate the Stories in the Product Backlog
D. To represent the Customer to the Agile Team


87. During which of the following PI Planning activities does Product Management introduce the prioritized Features to the teams for planning?

A. The Product/Solution Vision presentation
B. The draft plan review
C. The business context presentation
D. The Management Review and Problem-Solving workshop


88. Product Management is responsible for "what gets built" as defined by the Vision, Roadmap, and what else?

A. Program Backlog
B. Key stakeholders
C. Customers
D. PI Planning


89. Which statement is true about the purpose of a work in process constraint?

A. It encourages collaboration and enables flow
B. It captures where all new "big" ideas come from
C. It helps analyze, approve, and track Portfolio Epics and Enablers
D. It identifies possible constraints for Solution completion


90. What is the recommended length of an Iteration?

A. Two weeks
B. Ten weeks
C. Four weeks
D. Eight weeks


91. What does a program board help teams identify?

A. Program-level risks
B. Dependencies between teams
C. Each teams tasks
D. Work breakdowns


92. The Scrum Master wants to establish a team's initial velocity. A team has two testers, three developers, one full-time Scrum Master, and a Product Owner split between two teams. What is their normalized velocity before calculating for time off?

A. 40
B. 32
C. 48
D. 52


93. Which statement defines the purpose of Iteration Planning?

A. It is to analyze, approve, and ready Features for implementation
B. It is to organize the work and define a realistic scope for the Iteration
C. It is to break Stories into tasks that are achievable in the team's capacity
D. It is to explore and implement program Epics and split them into Features to be further explored


94. What is the goal of the PI Planning event?

A. Build a release Roadmap
B. Achieve alignment on what needs to and can be built
C. Create a plan for the upcoming PI showing how Stories map to Iterations
D. Identify the risks in the upcoming Features using a ROAMing exercise


95. What type of visibility should Product Owners provide during the Agile Release Train Sync?

A. Visibility into program Epics and Features
B. Visibility into analysis, approval, and Feature readiness for implementation
C. Visibility into backlog items
D. Visibility into scope and priority adjustments


96. What information does a cumulative flow diagram provide?

A. The cycle time system information which starts the implementation
B. The self-assessment information for the teams
C. The data for the team to identify current bottlenecks
D. The derived predictability data for the team


97. Which is an example of a part of an Iteration retrospective?

A. Estimation of Stories
B. Team discussion around opportunities for continuous improvement
C. Program level analysis of a problem using root cause analysis techniques
D. Gathering feedback from the stakeholders


98. What should be taken into account when estimating Story point size?

A. Complexity
B. Team size
C. Number of days it will take
D. Priority


99. Which statement is true about pair work in the Scaled Agile Framework?

A. It comes from pair programming in Extreme Programming (XP)
B. It is a best practice that team members should spend 50% to 100% of the time in pair work
C. It occurs during Iteration Planning
D. It is for developers only


100. On the seventh day of the Iteration, the team realizes that they will not complete 5 of the 13 Stories. The Product Owner (PO) says she cannot negotiate the scope of the remaining Stories any further. What is the PO's best course of action?

A. Defer acceptance testing to the next Iteration
B. Communicate the status of the Iteration to all stakeholders
C. Have an emergency Iteration Planning meeting
D. Stop the current Iteration and plan a new Iteration with the new knowledge


101. What is a major benefit of reducing batch size?

A. Increases visibility
B. Decreases stress on the system
C. Increases work in process
D. Increases throughput


102. What is the role of the System Architect/Engineer?

A: To manage dependencies
B: To implement continuous improvement methods
C: To guide the teams and support the Architectural Runway
D: To define the design for the system


103. What mechanism is used to align the team members to a common purpose and provide continuous management information?

A: Cumulative Flow Diagram
B: Lead Time
C: Iteration Goal
D: Pareto Analysis


104. Which of the following is not a SAFe configuration?

A: Portfolio
B: Essential
C: Medium Solution
D: Large Solution


105. Which one of the below is not one of the Core Competencies for Business Agility?

A: Lean-Agile Leadership
B: Organizational Agility
C: Team and Technical Agility
D: Program Agility


106. What must management do for a successful Agile transformation?

A: Commit to quality and take responsibility to change the system
B: Send someone to represent management, and then delegate tasks to these individuals
C: Establish direct lines of report to the RTEs
D: Identify an area of the transformation they can control


107. What does INVEST stand for in the context of good user stories?

A: Independent, Negotiable, Valuable, Estimable, Small, Testable
B: Immutable, Negotiable, Valuable, Estimable, Small, Testable
C: Immutable, Negotiable, Valuable, Estimable, Specific, Testable
D: Immutable, Negative, Valuable, Estimable, Specific, Testable


108. What is the first step in Kotter's 8-step process for leading change?

A: Generate short-term wins
B: Enlist a volunteer army
C: Create a sense of urgency
D: Build a guiding coalition


109. What type of visibility should Product Owners provide during the Agile Release Train Sync?

A: Visibility into program Epics and Features
B: Visibility into analysis, approval, and Feature readiness for implementation
C: Visibility into backlog items
D: Visibility into scope and priority adjustments


110. When should a component team be used?

A: To develop T-shaped skills together with Continuous Integration
B: To create each replaceable component with minimized dependencies
C: To gain the fastest velocity with well defined interfaces
D: To obtain high reuse and technical specialization with a focus on nonfunctional requirements


111. Which statement is true about the PI Planning event?

A: It involves only the team members who are most qualified to estimate the work
B: It involves program Portfolio Management to prioritize the Stories presented by teams during the final plan review
C: It involves everyone in the program over a two-day period
D: It involves Product Management and Product Owners on the first day and the rest of the teams on the second day


112. A decrease in variability leads to an increase in what?

A: Predictability
B: Options
C: Autonomy
D: Innovation


113. Why is it important to spend time "in the zone"?

A: To reduce queue lengths
B: To maximize ideal productivity time
C: To refine productive collaboration
D: To make work in process visible


114. What is ART sync event at program level?

A: Sync of all people on the ART
B: There is no such event in SAFe
C: Sync between the ScrumMasters and the Business Owners
D: Combined PO Sync and Scrum of Scrums


115. According to the Agile Manifesto, Responding to Change is more important than ___________

A: Contract Negotiation
B: Individuals and Interactions
C: Following a Plan
D: Customer Collaboration


116. What is critical to successfully implementing quality in a Lean-Agile environment?

A: Making quality everyone's responsibility
B: A phased-gate rollout
C: Separation of Dev and Ops
D: Component teams